Tuesday, February 3, 2015

Advanced Reading Practice for all type students

Refer to the following passage for questions 1 through 5.
ACCUPLACER Test Study Guide with Practice Questions
 
In 1892, the Sierra Club was formed. In 1908, an area of coastal redwood trees north of San Francisco was established as Muir Woods National Monument. In the Sierra Nevada Mountains, a walking trail from Yosemite Valley to Mount Whitney was dedicated in 1938. It is called the John Muir Trail.
John Muir was born in 1838 in Scotland. His family name means "moor," which is a meadow full of flowers and animals. John loved nature from the time he was small. He also liked to climb rocky cliffs and walls.
When John was 11 years old, his family moved to the United States and settled in Wisconsin. John was good with tools and soon became an inventor. He first invented a model of a sawmill. Later, he invented an alarm clock that would cause the sleeping person to be tipped out of bed when the timer sounded.
Muir left home at an early age. He took a 1,000-mile walk south to the Gulf of Mexico in 1867and 1868. Then he sailed for San Francisco. The city was too noisy and crowded for Muir, so he headed inland for the Sierra Nevadas.

When Muir discovered the Yosemite Valley in the Sierra Nevadas, it was as if he had come home. He loved the mountains, the wildlife, and the trees. He climbed the mountains and even climbed trees during thunderstorms in order to get closer to the wind. He put forth the theory in the late 1860s that the Yosemite Valley had been formed through the action of glaciers. People ridiculed him. Not until 1930 was Muir's theory proven correct.
Muir began to write articles about the Yosemite Valley to tell readers about its beauty. His writing also warned people that Yosemite was in danger from timber mining and sheep ranching interests. In 1901, Theodore Roosevelt became president of the United States. He was interested in conservation. Muir took the president through Yosemite, and Roosevelt helped get legislation passed to create Yosemite National Park in 1906.
Although Muir won many conservation battles, he lost a major one. He fought to save the Hetch Hetchy Valley, which people wanted to dam in order to provide water for San Francisco. In late 1913, a bill was signed to dam the valley. Muir died in 1914. Some people say losing the fight to protect the valley killed Muir.
1. What happened first?
A. The Muir family moved to the United States.
B. Muir Woods was created.
C. John Muir learned to climb rocky cliffs.
D. John Muir walked to the Gulf of Mexico.
E. John Muir visited along the east coast.
2. When did Muir invent a unique form of alarm clock?
A. While the family still lived in Scotland.
B. After he sailed to San Francisco.
C. After he traveled in Yosemite.
D. While the Muir family lived in Wisconsin.
E. After he took the long walk.
3. What did John Muir do soon after he arrived in San Francisco?
A. He ran outside during an earthquake.
B. He put forth a theory about how Yosemite was formed.
C. He headed inland for the Sierra Nevadas.
D. He began to write articles about the Sierra Nevadas.
E. He wrote short stories for the local newspaper.
4. When did John Muir meet Theodore Roosevelt?
A. Between 1901 and 1906
B. Between 1838 and 1868
C. Between 1906 and 1914
D. Between 1868 and 1901
E. Between 1906 and 1907
5. What happened last?
A. John Muir died.
B. John Muir Trail was dedicated.
C. Muir's glacial theory was proven.
D. The Sierra Club was formed.
E. John's family visited him.
Refer to the following passage for questions 6 through 9.
When using a metal file, always remember to bear down on the forward stroke only. On the return stroke, lift the file clear of the surface to avoid dulling the instrument's teeth. Only when working on very soft metals is it advisable to drag the file's teeth slightly on the return stroke. This helps clear out metal pieces from between the teeth.
It is best to bear down just hard enough to keep the file cutting at all times. Too little pressure uses only the tips of the teeth, while too much pressure can chip the teeth. Move the file in straight lines across the surface. Use a vise to grip the work so that your hands are free to hold the file. Protect your hands by equipping the file with a handle. Buy a wooden handle and install it by inserting the pointed end of the file into the handle hole.
6. These directions show you how to...
A. Work with a hammer.
B. Use a file.
C. Polish a file.
D. Oil a vise.
E. Repair shop tools.
7. When using a file...
A. Always bear down on the return stroke.
B. Move it in a circle.
C. Remove the handle.
D. Press down on the forward stroke.
E. Wear protective gloves.
8. When working on soft metals, you can...
A. Remove the handle.
B. Clear metal pieces from the teeth.
C. Bear down very hard on the return stroke.
D. File in circles.
E. Strengthen them with added wood.
9. Protect your hands by...
A. Dulling the teeth.
B. Dragging the teeth on the backstroke.
C. Using a vise.
D. Installing a handle.
E. Wearing safety gloves.
Refer to the following passage for questions 10 through 19.
"Old woman," grumbled the burly white man who had just heard Sojourner Truth speak, "do you think your talk about slavery does any good? I don't care any more for your talk than I do for the bite of a flea."
The tall, imposing black woman turned her piercing eyes on him. "Perhaps not," she answered, "but I'll keep you scratching."
The little incident of the 1840s sums up all that Sojourner Truth was: utterly dedicated to spreading her message, afraid of no one, and both forceful and witty in speech.
Yet 40 years earlier, who could have suspected that a spindly slave girl growing up in a damp cellar in upstate New York would become one of the most remarkable women in American history? Her name then was Isabella Baumfree, and by the time she was 14 years old she had seen both parents die of cold and hunger. She herself had been sold several times. By 1827, when New York freed its slaves, she had married and given birth to four children.
The first hint of Isabella's fighting spirit came soon afterwards, when her youngest son was illegally seized and sold. She marched to the courthouse and badgered officials until her son was returned to her.
In 1843, inspired by religion, she changed her name to Sojourner (meaning "one who stays briefly") Truth and, with only pennies in her purse, set out to preach against slavery. From New England to Minnesota she trekked, gaining a reputation for her plain but powerful and moving words. Incredibly, despite being black and female (only white males were expected to be public speakers), she drew thousands to town halls, tents, and churches to hear her powerful, deep-voiced pleas on equality for blacks-and for women. Often she had to face threatening hoodlums. Once she stood before armed bullies and sang a hymn to them. Awed by her courage and her commanding presence, they sheepishly retreated.
During the Civil War she cared for homeless ex-slaves in Washington, D.C. President Lincoln invited her to the White House to bestow praise on her. Later, she petitioned Congress to help former slaves get land in the West. Even in her old age, she forced the city of Washington, D.C. to integrate its trolley cars so that black and white passengers could ride together.
Shortly before her death at the age of 86, she was asked what kept her going. "I think of the great things," replied Sojourner.
10. The imposing black woman promised to keep the white man...
A. Searching.
B. Crying.
C. Hollering.
D. Scratching.
E. Fleeing.
11. This incident occurred in the...
A. 1760s.
B. 1900s.
C. 1840s.
D. 1920s.
E. 1700s.
12. Sojourner Truth was raised in a damp cellar in...
A. New York.
B. Georgia.
C. New Jersey.
D. Idaho.
E. Maryland.
13. Isabella lost both parents by the time she was...
A. 27 years old.
B. 2 years old.
C. 7 years old.
D. 14 years old.
E. 19 years old.
14. When New York freed its slaves, Isabella had...
A. Problems.
B. No children.
C. Four children.
D. An education.
E. Three children.
15. Her change in name was inspired by...
A. A fighting spirit.
B. Religion.
C. Her freedom.
D. Officials.
E. Friends.
16. She traveled from New England to...
A. Canada.
B. California.
C. Minnesota.
D. Alaska.
E. Virginia.
17. She forced the city of Washington, D.C. to...
A. Integrate its trolleys.
B. Give land grants.
C. Care for ex-slaves.
D. Provide food for ex-slaves
. E. Clean its trolleys.
18. She preached against...
A. Smoking.
B. Slavery.
C. Alcohol.
D. Hoodlums.
E. Women having no rights.
19. Sojourner Truth died at...
A. 48.
B. 72.
C. 63.
D. 86.
E. 88.
Refer to the following passage for questions 20 through 24.
The Galapagos Islands are in the Pacific Ocean, off the western coast of South America. They are a rocky, lonely spot, but they are also one of the most unusual places in the world. One reason is that they are the home of some of the last giant tortoises left on earth.
Weighing hundreds of pounds, these tortoises, or land turtles, wander slowly around the rocks and sand of the islands. Strangely, each of these islands has its own particular kinds of tortoises. There are seven different kinds of tortoises on the eight islands, each kind being slightly different from the other.
Hundreds of years ago, thousands of tortoises wandered around these islands. However, all that changed when people started landing there. When people first arrived in 1535, their ships had no refrigerators. This meant that fresh food was always a problem for the sailors on board. The giant tortoises provided an easy solution to this problem.
Ships would anchor off the islands, and crews would row ashore and seize as many tortoises as they could. Once the animals were aboard the ship, the sailors would roll the tortoises onto their backs. The tortoises were completely helpless once on their backs, so they could only lie there until used for soups and stews. Almost 100,000 tortoises were carried off in this way.
The tortoises faced other problems, too. Soon after the first ships, settlers arrived, bringing pigs, goats, donkeys, dogs and cats. All of these animals ruined life for the tortoises. Donkeys and goats ate all the plants that the tortoises usually fed on, while the pigs, dogs and cats consumed thousands of baby tortoises each year. Within a few years, it was hard to find any tortoise eggs-or even any baby tortoises.
By the early 1900s, people began to worry that the last of the tortoises would soon die out. No one, however, seemed to care enough to do anything about the problem. More and more tortoises disappeared, even though sailors no longer needed them for food. For another 50 years, this situation continued. Finally, in the 1950s, scientists decided that something must be done.
The first part of their plan was to remove as many cats, dogs and other animals as they could from the islands. Next, they tried to make sure that more baby tortoises would be born. To do this, they started looking for wild tortoise eggs. They gathered the eggs and put them in safe containers. When the eggs hatched, the scientists raised the tortoises in special pens. Both the eggs and tortoises were numbered so that the scientists knew exactly which kinds of tortoises they had and which island they came from. Once the tortoises were old enough and big enough to take care of themselves, the scientists took them back to their islands and set them loose. This slow, hard work continues today, and, thanks to it, the number of tortoises is now increasing every year. Perhaps these wonderful animals will not disappear after all.
20. What happened first?
A. Sailors took tortoises aboard ships.
B. The tortoise meat was used for soups and stews.
C. Tortoises were put onto their backs.
D. Settlers brought other animals to the islands.
E. Pigs had been all the sailors had to eat.
21. What happened soon after people brought animals to the islands?
A. Tortoise eggs were kept in safe containers.
B. Scientists took away as many animals as they could.
C. The animals ate the tortoises' food and eggs.
D. The tortoises fought with the other animals.
E. The tortoises continued to wander freely.
22. When did people start to do something to save the tortoises?
A. In the 1500s
B. In the 1950s
C. In the early 1900s
D. In the 1960s
E. In the 1400s
23. What happens right after the tortoise eggs hatch?
A. The scientists take the tortoises back to their islands.
B. The scientists get rid of cats, dogs, and other animals.
C. The sailors use the tortoises for food.
D. The scientists raise the tortoises in special pens.
E. The scientists encourage the villagers to help.
24. What happened last?
A. The tortoises began to disappear.
B. The number of tortoises began to grow.
C. Scientists took away other animals.
D. Tortoises were taken back to their home islands.
E. The number of tortoises began to decrease.
Refer to the following passage for questions 25 through 28.

The first person in the group starts off by naming anything that is geographical. It could be a city, state, country, river, lake, or any proper geographical term. For example, the person might say, "Boston." The second person has 10 seconds to think of how the word ends and come up with another geographical term starting with that letter. The second participant might say, "Norway," because the geographical term has to start with "N." The third person would have to choose a word beginning with "Y." If a player fails to think of a correct answer within the time limit, that player is out of the game. The last person to survive is the champion.
25. This game may help you with...
A. History.
B. Music.
C. Geography.
D. Sports.
E. Current events.
26. The person trying to answer needs...
A. No time limit.
B. To know geography only.
C. To ignore the last letters of words.
D. To know something about spelling and geography.
E. To be a good speller.
27. Before you choose your own word, think about how...
A. The last word starts.
B. The last word ends.
C. Smart you are.
D. Long the last word is.
E. The first word is spelled.
28. The answer must be...
A. In New York.
B. Within the United States.
C. A proper geographical term.
D. In the same region.
E. Along a coast line.
Refer to the following passage for questions 29 through 33.
Charles A. Lindbergh is remembered as the first person to make a nonstop solo flight across the Atlantic, in 1927. This feat, performed when Lindbergh was only 25 years old, assured him a lifetime of fame and public attention.
Charles Augustus Lindbergh was more interested in flying airplanes than he was in studying. He dropped out of the University of Wisconsin after two years to earn a living performing daredevil airplane stunts at county fairs. Two years later, he joined the United States Army so that he could go to the Army Air Service flight-training school. After completing his training, he was hired to fly mail between St. Louis and Chicago.
Then came the historic flight across the Atlantic. In 1919, a New York City hotel owner offered a prize of $25,000 for the first pilot to fly nonstop from New York to Paris. Nine St. Louis business leaders helped pay for the plane Lindbergh designed especially for the flight. Lindbergh tested the plane by flying it from San Diego to New York, with an overnight stop in St. Louis. The flight took only 20 hours and 21 minutes, a transcontinental record.
Nine days later, on May 20, 1927, Lindbergh took off from Long Island, New York, at 7:52 a.m. He landed in Paris on May 21 at 10:21 p.m. He had flown more than 3,600 miles in less than 34 hours. His flight made news around the world. He was given awards and parades everywhere he went. He was presented with the US Congressional Medal of Honor and the first Distinguished Flying Cross. For a long time, Lindbergh toured the world as a US goodwill ambassador. He met his future wife, Anne Morrow, in Mexico, where her father was the United States ambassador.
During the 1930s, Charles and Anne Lindbergh worked for various airline companies, charting new commercial air routes. In 1931, for a major airline, they charted a new route from the east coast of the United States to the Orient. The shortest, most efficient route was a great curve across Canada, over Alaska, and down to China and Japan. Most pilots familiar with the Arctic did not believe that such a route was possible. The Lindberghs took on the task of proving that it was. They arranged for fuel and supplies to be set out along the route. On July 29, they took off from Long Island in a specially equipped small seaplane. They flew by day and each night landed on a lake or a river and camped. Near Nome, Alaska, they had their first serious emergency. Out of daylight and nearly out of fuel, they were forced down into a small ocean inlet. In the next morning's light, they discovered they had landed on barely three feet of water. On September 19, after two more emergency landings and numerous close calls, they landed in China with the maps for a safe airline passenger route.
Even while actively engaged as a pioneering flier, Lindbergh was also working as an engineer. In 1935, he and Dr. Alexis Carrel were given a patent for an artificial heart. During World War II in the 1940s, Lindbergh served as a civilian technical advisor in aviation. Although he was a civilian, he flew over 50 combat missions in the Pacific. In the 1950s, Lindbergh helped design the famous 747 jet airliner. In the late 1960s, he spoke widely on conservation issues. He died in August 1974, having lived through aviation history from the time of the first powered flight to the first steps on the moon and having influenced a big part of that history himself.
29. What did Lindbergh do before he crossed the Atlantic?
A. He charted a route to China.
B. He graduated from flight-training school.
C. He married Anne Morrow.
D. He acted as a technical advisor during World War II.
E. He was responsible for the fuel supply for planes.
30. What happened immediately after Lindbergh crossed the Atlantic?
A. He flew the mail between St. Louis and Chicago.
B. He left college.
C. He attended the Army flight-training school.
D. He was given the Congressional Medal of Honor.
E. He married Anne Morrow.
31. When did Charles meet Anne Morrow?
A. Before he took off from Long Island.
B. After he worked for an airline.
C. Before he was forced down into an ocean inlet.
D. After he received the first Distinguished Flying Cross.
E. When visiting his parents.
32. When did the Lindberghs map an air route to China?
A. Before they worked for an airline.
B. Before Charles worked with Dr. Carrel.
C. After World War II.
D. While designing the 747.
E. When he was 30 years old.
33. What event happened last?
A. Lindbergh patented an artificial heart.
B. The Lindberghs mapped a route to the Orient.
C. Lindbergh helped design the 747 airliner.
D. Lindbergh flew 50 combat missions.
E. Lindbergh was finally given an honorary degree from college.
Refer to the following passage for questions 34 through 37.

Always read the meter dials from the right to the left. This procedure is much easier, especially if any of the dial hands are near the zero mark. If the meter has two dials, and one is smaller than the other, then it is not imperative to read the smaller dial because it only registers a small amount. Read the dial at the right first. As the dial turns clockwise, always record the figure the pointer has just passed. Read the next dial to the left and record the figure it has just passed. Continue recording the figures on the dials from right to left. When finished, mark off the number of units recorded. Dials on water and gas meters usually indicate the amount each dial records.
34. These instructions show you how to...
A. Read a meter.
B. Turn the dials of a meter.
C. Install a gas meter.
D. Repair a water meter.
E. Be prepared for outside employment.
35. Always read the meter dials...
A. From top to bottom.
B. From right to left.
C. From left to right.
D. From the small to the large dial.
E. From the large dial to the small dial.
36. As you read the first dial, record the figures...
A. On the smaller dial.
B. The pointer is approaching.
C. The pointer has just passed.
D. At the top.
E. At the bottom.
37. When you have finished reading the meter, mark off...
A. The number of units recorded.
B. The figures on the small dial.
C. The total figures.
D. All the zero marks.
E. The last reading of the month.
Refer to the following passage for questions 38 through 44.
The village of Vestmannaeyjar, in the far northern country of Iceland, is as bright and clean and up-to-date as any American or Canadian suburb. It is located on the island of Heimaey, just off the mainland. One January night in 1973, however, householders were shocked from their sleep. In some backyards, red-hot liquid was spurting from the ground. Flaming "skyrockets" shot up and over the houses. The island's volcano, Helgafell, silent for 7,000 years, was violently erupting!
Luckily, the island's fishing fleet was in port, and within 24 hours almost everyone was ferried to the mainland. But then the agony of the island began in earnest. As in a nightmare, fountains of burning lava spurted 300 feet high. Black, baseball-size cinders rained down. An evil-smelling, eye-burning, throat-searing cloud of smoke and gas erupted into the air, and a river of lava flowed down the mountain. The constant shriek of escaping steam was punctuated by ear-splitting explosions.
As time went on, the once pleasant village of Vestmannaeyjar took on a weird aspect. Its street lamps still burning against the long Arctic night, the town lay under a thick blanket of cinders. All that could be seen above the 10-foot black drifts were the tips of street signs. Some houses had collapsed under the weight of cinders, while others had burst into flames as the heat ignited their oil storage tanks. Lighting the whole lurid scene, fire continued to shoot from the mouth of the looming volcano.
The eruption continued for six months. Scientists and reporters arrived from around the world to observe the awesome natural event. But the town did not die that easily. In July, when the eruption ceased, the people of Heimaey Island returned to assess the chances of rebuilding their homes and lives. They found tons of ash covering the ground. The Icelanders are a tough people, however, accustomed to the strange and violent nature of their Arctic land. They dug out their homes. They even used the cinders to build new roads and airport runways. Now the new homes of Heimaey are warmed from water pipes heated by molten lava.
38. The village is located on the island of...
A. Vestmannaeyjar.
B. Hebrides.
C. Heimaey.
D. Helgafell.
E. Heima.
39. The color of the hot liquid was...
A. Orange.
B. Black.
C. Yellow.
D. Red.
E. Gray.
40. This liquid was coming from the...
A. Mountains.
B. Ground.
C. Sea.
D. Sky.
E. Ocean.
41. The island's volcano had been inactive for...
A. 70 years.
B. 7,000 years.
C. 7,000 months.
D. 700 years.
E. 70 decades.
42. Black cinders fell that were the size of...
A. Baseballs.
B. Pebbles.
C. Golf balls.
D. Footballs.
E. Hailstones.
43. Despite the eruption...
A. The buses kept running.
B. The radio stations kept broadcasting.
C. The police kept working.
D. The street lamps kept burning.
E. Television stations kept broadcasting.
44. This volcanic eruption lasted for six...
A. Weeks.
B. Hours.
C. Months.
D. Days.
E. Years.

Answers and Explanations

1. C: The passage indicates that Muir liked to climb rocky cliffs as a child, and that when he was 11 years old, his family moved to the United States (A). Muir Woods was established (B) in 1908; Muir, born in 1838, was 11 years old in 1849, and was a rock-climbing child earlier. Muir walked to the Gulf of Mexico (D) in 1867-1868. The passage never suggests that Muir visited along the east coast (E) at all.
2. D: Muir invented his unique alarm clock in his youth, between 1849 and 1867, while he lived with his family in Wisconsin; not while they still lived in Scotland (A) until he was 11 years old; not after he sailed to San Francisco (B) in 1868, at the age of 30 years; not after he traveled in Yosemite (C), also in 1868; and not after he took the long walk in 1867-1868.
3. C: Soon after arriving in San Francisco, Muir headed inland for the Sierra Nevadas. The passage never reads that he ran outside during an earthquake (A). He proposed his theory about Yosemite's formation (B) during the late 1860s, after exploring Yosemite. After proposing his theory, Muir began writing articles, not about the Sierra Nevadas (D) overall, but specifically about the Yosemite Valley. The passage never indicates that he wrote short stories for the local newspaper (E).
4. A: The passage indicates that TR became President in 1901; after Muir took him through Yosemite, Roosevelt established Yosemite National Park in 1906. Therefore, they met between these years. 1838-1868 (B) is the first 30 years of Muir's life, from birth to going to San Francisco. 1906-1914 (C) would be after TR established Yosemite National Park through Muir's influence. 1868-1901 (D) is the period from Muir's arrival in San Francisco until Roosevelt's election. 1906-1907 (E) is also too late.
5. B: John Muir Trail was dedicated in 1938 (first paragraph, last two sentences). John Muir died (A) in 1914 (last paragraph). Muir's glacial theory was proven (C) in 1930 (fifth paragraph). The Sierra Club was formed (D) in 1892 (first sentence).
6. B: This passage gives how-to directions for using a metal file. It does not tell how to use a hammer (A), how to polish a file (C), how to oil a vise (D)-the directions include using a vise to hold the work while using the file, but not how to oil the vise-or how to repair shop tools (E).
7. D: The passage instructs the reader always to bear/press down on the forward stroke of the file only, and to lift the file rather than bearing down on the return stroke (A). (Even with very soft metals, it instructs to drag slightly, not press down, on the return stroke.) Moving it in a circle (B) and removing the handle (C) are never mentioned. (Buying and installing a handle are advised.) Wearing protective gloves (E) is never mentioned.
8. B: The instructions do include how to clear the teeth of pieces of very soft metals. They do not direct readers to remove the handle (A); to bear down very hard on the return stroke (C), which they advise to avoid as it will dull the teeth, advising slight dragging instead; to file in circles (D), or to add wood for strength (E).
9. D: The instructions advise users to install a handle to protect their hands rather than dulling the teeth (A), against which they advise; dragging the teeth on the return stroke (B), which is recommended NOT for protecting hands but for clearing the file's teeth of pieces from very soft metals; using a vise (C), which is recommended to free the hands, not protect them; or wearing safety gloves (E), which is never mentioned.
10. D: The second paragraph quotes Truth as saying, "I'll keep you scratching" in response to the white man's comparison of her speech to a flea's bite.
11. C: The third paragraph places this incident in the 1840s. According to the passage's information, Sojourner Truth was not yet born in the 1760s (A) or 1700s (E). It also states she died at age 86, so she was not still alive in the 1900s (B) or 1920s (D). (Note: Sojourner Truth lived 1797-1883. The passage does not give these specific years, but the wrong answers can be identified through the information it does give, described above.)
12. A: The passage identifies upstate New York as where Sojourner Truth was raised (fourth paragraph). It never mentions Georgia (B), New Jersey (C), Idaho (D), or Maryland (E). It mentions her trekking from New England to Minnesota (sixth paragraph) preaching against slavery; and caring for homeless ex-slaves during the Civil War and forcing the city to integrate trolley cars in her old age, both in Washington, D.C.; but not growing up anywhere other than New York State.
13. D: The passage indicates fourth paragraph) that Isabella had lost both parents by the time she was 14 years old, not 27 (A), 2 (B), 7 (C), or 19 (E) years old.
14. C: The fourth paragraph of the passage indicates that Isabella had married and had four children by the time New York freed its slaves in 1827. It does not indicate that she had problems (A), no children (B), an education (D), or three children (E) by that time.
15. B: The sixth paragraph indicates that Isabella, "inspired by religion," changed her name to Sojourner Truth in 1843. The previous (fifth) paragraph refers to her fighting spirit (A) as signified by her demanding her son's return, not as the inspiration for her name change. The passage does not indicate that she was inspired by her freedom (C), by officials (D), or by friends (E) to change her name.
16. C: The sixth paragraph describes Truth's traveling from New England to Minnesota, not Canada (A), California (B), Alaska (D), or Virginia (E).
17. A: The passage reports that Truth forced the city of Washington, D.C. to integrate its trolley cars. She did not force the city to give land grants (B). She herself cared for ex-slaves (C) during the Civil War rather than forcing the city to do so. She did not force the city to provide food for ex-slaves (D) or to clean its trolley cars (E).
18. B: The sixth paragraph indicates that she preached against slavery, not against smoking (A), alcohol (C), hoodlums (D), or women having no rights (E).
19. D: The last paragraph of the passage informs that Sojourner Truth died at the age of 86, not at 48 (A), 72 (B), 63 (C), or 88 (E) years.
20. A: The fourth paragraph describes sailors' carrying tortoises off to their ships, where they subsequently turned them onto their backs (C), rendering them helpless, and then used them for food (B). Settlers brought other animals to the Galapagos Islands (D) "soon after" (fifth paragraph) the sailors took them. The passage never mentions the sailors' eating pigs (E) at all.
21. C: The passage describes (fifth paragraph) animals' eating the tortoises' food and eggs. Tortoise eggs were kept in safe containers (A) many years later, in the 1950s (penultimate and last paragraphs), once scientists began to rebuild the depleted tortoise population. Scientists gathered tortoise eggs but did not take away tortoises (B); sailors many years earlier did. The tortoises did not fight with other animals (D) or continue to wander freely (E), as more and more disappeared.
22. B: The passage indicates (sixth and seventh/last paragraphs) that scientists started working to save tortoises in the 1950s. The 1500s (A) was when sailors first visited the Galapagos and began decimating the tortoise population by eating them. The early 1900s (C) is described as when people began to worry about tortoise extinction, not when scientists began to do something about it. The 1960s (D) and 1400s (E) are never mentioned.
23. D: The passage describes scientists raising newly hatched tortoise eggs in special pens. They only return them to their islands (A) once they have grown old and big enough to care for themselves. The scientists got rid of excessive cats, dogs, and other animals (B) to decrease their predation on tortoises before gathering, incubating, and hatching tortoise eggs. Sailors first used tortoises for food (C) hundreds of years ago. The passage never mentions their encouraging villagers to help (E).
24. B: Tortoise numbers began growing thanks to the scientists' efforts. The number of tortoises began to decrease (E) and tortoises began disappearing (A) first. Years later, scientists removed other animals (C) that had been preying on tortoises. After gathering and hatching eggs and raising tortoises, scientists returned them to their islands (D) and tortoise numbers began increasing.
25. C: This game can help the players learn geography through naming geographical terms and names. This activity will not help players learn history (A), music (B), sports (D), or current events (E).
26. D: The person answering needs to know geographical names and terms, and how to spell them. The game does give each player a time limit (A) of 10 seconds to answer. The game does not require players to know only geography (B). The game requires attending to, not ignoring (C) the last letters of words. While players need to know some spelling, with familiar place-names such as the examples given they need not be especially good spellers (E).
27. B: How the last word ends enables each player to think of a name/word starting with that letter. How the previous word starts (A) is immaterial, as is thinking about how smart you are (C). How long the last word is (D) does not matter. How the initial word is spelled (E) overall is irrelevant to subsequent players' word choices-except the second player, who must know the first word's final letter, but not the rest of the word's spelling.
28. C: Proper geographical terms are the required answers. The passage never stipulates that answers must be in New York (A), within the United States (B), in the same region (D), or along a coast line (E).
29. B: Lindbergh was hired to fly mail after attending Army flight-training school, subsequently crossing the Atlantic in 1919 (second paragraph). He married Anne Morrow (C) after flying from New York to Paris in 1927 (third paragraph). They charted the China route (A) in 1931 (fourth paragraph). The Lindberghs arranged for fuel provision along this route; Lindbergh was not responsible for planes' fuel supply (E). He was a technical advisor during World War II (D) in the 1940s (fifth paragraph).
30. D: Immediately after crossing the Atlantic, Lindbergh was awarded the Congressional Medal of Honor (third paragraph). He flew mail between St. Louis and Chicago (A) before crossing the Atlantic (second paragraph).
31. D: Charles met Anne after receiving the first Distinguished Flying Cross for flying from New York to Paris in 1927 (third paragraph). He met her after he took off from Long Island (A) to begin that flight. He and Anne both worked for airlines (B) after marrying (fourth paragraph). He and Anne were forced down into an ocean inlet (C) in Alaska while mapping the route to China (fourth paragraph). The passage never mentions Lindbergh's visiting his parents (E).
32. B: The Lindberghs mapped the route to China in 1931; Charles and Dr. Carrel received a patent for their artificial heart in 1935. The Lindberghs charted the China route as work for a major airline, not before doing so (A). 1931 was prior to World War II (C). Lindbergh helped design the 747 (D) in the 1950s. Lindbergh was 25 in 1927 (first paragraph), so he was 30 (E) in 1932, a year after mapping the China route.
33. C: Lindbergh helped design the 747 in the 1950s. The artificial heart patent (A) was in 1935. The Lindberghs mapped a route to the Orient (B) in 1931. Lindbergh flew 50 combat missions (D) during World War II in the 1940s. The passage never mentions his receiving an honorary college degree (E).
34. A: These are how-to instructions for reading a meter, not for turning a meter's dials (B) (which should not be done!), or for installing a gas meter (C), repairing a water meter (D), or being prepared for outside employment (E).
35. B: The first sentence advises always to read meter dials from right to left, not from top to bottom (A), left to right (C), from the small to large dial (D), or from the large to small dial.
36. C: The instructions indicate always to record the figure the pointer has just passed, not the figures it is approaching (B), as it turns clockwise. They never instruct to record the smaller dial's figures (A); in fact, they stipulate that it is not imperative even to read the smaller dial. There are no instructions to record figures at the top (D) or bottom (E).
37. A: The second-to-last sentence advises to mark off the number of units recorded, not the small dial's figures (B)-which are not imperative even to read, let alone marking off these. The instructions never advise to mark off the total figures (C), all the zero marks (D), or the last reading of the month (E).
38. C: Heimaey is the island where the village of Vestmannaeyjar (A) is located. The Hebrides (B) are islands off the west coast of Scotland, not Iceland. Helgafell (D) is the name of the volcano that erupted in Vestmannaeyjar on Heimaey Island. Heima (E) means "home" or "at home" in Icelandic, and is the title of a documentary released in 2007 about the 2006 tour of Icelandic band Sigur R�s.
39. D: The passage describes the lava as "red-hot liquid" in the first paragraph. The colors orange (A), yellow (C), and gray (E) are not used in this passage. The cinders and ash, not the hot liquid, are described as black (B).
40. B: The liquid, i.e. lava, was coming from the ground-specifically, from underground. Magma exerts pressure underground until it erupts on the surface as lava. Volcanoes are mountains (A); however, lava does not come from the mountains but from beneath them. The lava came from under the ground, not from the sea (C), the sky (D), or the ocean (E). (There are volcanoes under seas and oceans, but the one described in this passage was not.)
41. B: The introductory paragraph indicates in its last sentence that the volcano had been inactive for 7,000 years, not 70 years (A), 7,000 months (C), 700 years (D), or 70 decades (E), which also equals 700 years (D).
42. A: The passage describes the black cinders as "baseball-size" (second paragraph). It does not liken their size to that of pebbles (B) or golf balls (C), which are both smaller than baseballs; or to footballs (D), which are bigger than baseballs; or to hailstones (E), which vary in size but to which the cinders are not compared in this passage.
43. D: The passage describes the street lamps still burning (third paragraph) as part of the weird aspect of the village blanketed by cinder drifts and lit by continuing fire. It never mentions buses continuing to run (A), radio broadcasts continuing (B), police continuing to work (C), or television stations continuing to broadcast (E).
44. C: The last paragraph's first sentence indicates that the eruption continued for six months, not six weeks (A), six hours (B), six days (D), or six years (E).
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Grammar Practice Questions and Answers for all student

Each of the following sentences contains an error of some kind. Read each sentence and select the option that correctly identifies its error.

1. David was known for belching; and telling inappropriate jokes in public.
ACCUPLACER Test Study Guide with Practice Questions
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
2. Graduation from High School is considered a momentous occasion by many.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
3. Nurses plays a vital role in the healthcare profession.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
4. After having his tonsels removed, the child was listless for a few days.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
5. The park was serine at twilight.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
6. Was the patient's mind lucid during the evaluation.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
7. The bachalor never married. Most people thought it was because of misogyny.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
8. The intricacy of the mathematical equation, drove the student trying to solve it crazy.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
9. The hybrid tomatoes is immune to most common diseases.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
10. The professor was humiliated when his students reported him to the Dean for verbal abuse.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
11. The con artist hoodwinked the old lady when he sold her fradulent insurance.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
12. The movie star was accused of a misdemeanor, when she stole $15 worth of merchandise from the store.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
13. The congregation sang a comtemporary hymn.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
14. The wound were necrotic when examined.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
15. The defendint exhibited a peevish appearance.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
16. The band director was scheduled to play the piccolo on tuesday.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
17. The renter was remiss; about the rent.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
18. The old man was know for his sapient knowledge.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
19. The inventor create several specious ideas to solve the problem.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar
20. The teacher identified the troublemakers, in her classroom.
A. Capitalization
B. Punctuation
C. Spelling
D. Grammar

Answers and Explanations

1. B: The semicolon is incorrect punctuation here. With the coordinating conjunction "and," no punctuation is needed between the two gerunds. A comma is permissible to indicate David did not necessarily do both things simultaneously; however, semicolons are for separating two independent clauses, or separating dependent clauses/phrases containing internal commas.
2. A: "High School" is incorrect capitalization. These words are not names/proper nouns and should not be capitalized.
3. D: The singular form of the verb ("plays") disagrees with the plural noun subject ("Nurses"), representing incorrect grammar.
4. C: "Tonsels" is an incorrect spelling of the word "tonsils."
5. C: "Serine" is an incorrect spelling of the adjective "serene," meaning peaceful (indicated by sentence context), confusing it with the noun serine, meaning the amino acid.
6. B: Ending this question with a period is incorrect punctuation. It should end with a question mark.
7. C: "Bachalor" is an incorrect spelling of "bachelor."
8. B: The comma is incorrect punctuation. No punctuation mark is needed here.
9. D: A singular predicate with a plural subject is incorrect subject-verb agreement, i.e. grammar.
10. A: The noun "dean" is not a name/proper noun, so the capitalization is incorrect.
11. C: "Fradulent" is incorrect spelling of the adjective "fraudulent."
12. B: The comma before the adverbial clause ("when...") is incorrect punctuation; it should not be there.
13. C: "Comtemporary" is an incorrect spelling of "contemporary."
14. D: The plural verb "were" with the singular noun subject "wound" lacks subject-verb agreement, constituting incorrect grammar.
15. C: "Defendint" is an incorrect spelling of the word "defendant."
16. A: The lower-case initial "t" in "Tuesday" is incorrect capitalization: names/proper nouns are capitalized.
17. B: The semicolon here is incorrect punctuation. The only punctuation mark this sentence needs is its final period.
18. D: The correct past-perfect form here is "was known." "Was know" is incorrect grammar.
19. D: "Create" is incorrect grammar here. The singular subject noun "inventor" requires either the singular verb form "creates" or the past-tense "created" for correct construction.
20. B: It is incorrect punctuation to place a comma between the noun and its modifying prepositional phrase. No punctuation mark should be used, except for the final period.
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Preparing for the Law School Admission Test

The Law School Admission Test (LSAT) by Dr. Rick Swanson, Pre-Law Advisor, Political Science Department 

What is the LSAT?
According to the Law School Admission Council, as stated in the LSAT registration booklet:
 “The LSAT is a half-day standardized test. . . . All LSAC-member schools require applicants to take the LSAT.   
The LSAT is designed to measure skills that are considered essential for success in law school: the reading and comprehension of complex texts with accuracy and insight; the organization and management of information and the ability to draw reasonable inferences from it; the ability to think critically; and the analysis and evaluation of the reasoning and argument of others.”
The test consists of five 35-minute sections of multiple-choice questions.  Four of the five sections contribute to the test taker’s score.  These sections include one reading comprehension section, one analytical reasoning section, and two logical reasoning sections.  The unscored section typically . . .  is used to pretest new test questions . . ..  The LSAT is scored on a scale of 120 to 180 . . . A 35-minute writing sample is administered at the end of the test.  LSAC does not score the writing sample, but copies are sent to all law schools to which a candidate applies.   (2007-2008 LSAT &LSDAS Information  Book).
The LSAT is used because it is currently the best available predictor (correlation of about .4) of first-year law school grades.  The LSAT does NOT test knowledge, it instead tests SKILLS (reading and critical thinking).  Thus the LSAT does not assume that any test taker has knowledge of a particular academic discipline.  The only thing the LSAAT assumes is that you read and write English at a college level.  However, academic courses that require writing and critical thinking will help develop LSAT skills.

How do I register for the LSAT?
The Law School Admission Council’s (LSAC) website at www.lsac.org contains LSAT information and registration, as well as the Law School Data Assembly Service (LSDAS), the ABA-LSAC Official Guide to Law Schools, and other helpful information.  Also, printed LSAT and LSDAS information packets can be obtained from the Department of Political Science office.

How do I prepare for the LSAT?
Preparation for the LSAT consists of learning about the test and becoming comfortable with it.  There are three ways to do this:
1. Practice.             2. Practice.             3. Practice.
Practice is essential because the skills tested in the various sections can be developed and improved upon through practice.  Moreover, each of the different LSAT sections use certain repeating patterns of questions—the questions themselves do not repeat, but the style or format of the questions are limited to a fixed number of different patterns.  Once you become trained at spotting the pattern in a question, that familiarity should help you in answering the question.  A common recommendation is to study at least 50 hours for the LSAT (and ideally much more) using some or all of the following various means of studying for and practicing the LSAT:

1.  The LSAT & LSDAS Information Book is free, and contains instructions, suggested approaches for the different LSAT sections, and numerous sample LSAT questions. LSAC also offers numerous past actual exams for sale.  These can be ordered when you register for the LSAT or LSDAS on-line at www.lsac.org

2. There are numerous low-cost commercial preparations available that cost little more than $30.  These are located in the standardized testing section (ACT, SAT, GRE, GMAT, MCAT, LSAT, etc.) of most larger bookstores.  Some of these preparations are The Princeton Review, Barron’s, Kaplan, Arco, and Cliff’s, among many others.  Each of these offers LSAT hints and strategies for the different sections and types of questions within each section, and also LSAT practice tests, and often actual past exams.

3. There are several commercial LSAT tutoring programs, costing several hundred to over a thousand dollars.  Some of these are the Princeton Review, Kaplan, Intensive Review, Testmasters, Get Prepped, Powerscore, and Test Review Institute. These programs give hints, strategies, and practice tests throughout the course.   For more information about these programs, search on-line to locate their company websites.   Students that enroll in these programs tend to enroll because (a) they lack the discipline to maintain a regular study schedule in preparing for the test on their own; (b) they desire the extra confidence they think a commercial tutoring service will give them, and (c) they can afford it.  True, an LSAT course is likely to improve your score. However, improvement might be only a point or two, so it is basically a gamble that you will get your money’s worth of improvement by taking such a course.  Roughly only one-third of LSAT takers take a commercial prep course, and statistics show only a slight (a couple points) improvement on average.

When is the best time to take the LSAT? 
The LSAT is offered four times a year: once in the summer, twice in the Fall, and once in early Spring.   June is generally considered best, because you can focus on preparing for the test without having other academic demands on your study time, and this also gives you time to re-take the test should you choose to do so.   If you take (or re-take) the test in the Fall by the latest, this still allows you to apply to law schools early and thus increase your chance of admission at schools that use early or rolling admissions.  Most importantly, however, take the LSAT whenever you are able to best and fully prepare for it.

What general strategies I can use during the test itself?
1. Scores are based only on the number of correct answers. No points are subtracted for wrong answers.  In other words, there is no penalty for guessing, so never leave a question unanswered. In fact, the LSAT is intentionally designed so that people have trouble finishing within the time limits.  Many people do not finish; guessing is often necessary, and this should be expected.

2.  Although questions might and do vary in difficulty, each correct answer is worth an equal number of points.  So, answer the easier questions first and then spend your remaining time on the more difficult questions.   Questions are NOT arranged in order of difficulty, so do NOT assume that easier questions occur at the beginning of a section; they will appear throughout the section.

3. You won’t have time to reread and double-check your answers, so answer the question carefully the first time and move on because you won’t have any time to come back and review your answer.  Work steadily and at a moderate pace but do NOT rush questions. Answer methodically but carefully. However, do not spend a lot of time on one question.   Again, each answer is worth the same, so move on to easier questions.  Come back if you have time; if not, then remember to fill in a guess.  Once you make a guess, move on and forget about that question.

4. If you skip a question or questions to come back to, rather than guess, make sure you put the right answers in the right spaces on the answer sheet.  And always remember to come back and answer any questions left blank, even if that means guessing.

What specific strategies can I use on the different test sections?
1. Reading Comprehension
The reading comprehension section is usually 26-28 questions. There are four long written passages, each followed by questions that test your broad comprehension of that passage. For example, a typical question asks about the thesis of the passage, or the author’s viewpoint.  Some people read the questions first to know what to look for while reading the passage, and then underline parts of the passage as they read. If the passage is technically difficult, don’t worry about vocabulary, just look for the main theme and arguments. Academic courses in English or other subjects with intensive reading components should help prepare you for this section.

2. Logical Reasoning (Comprises 2 sections)
The logical reasoning sections are usually 26-28 questions each. There is quite a range of types questions in this section, from logical argumentation patterns to what seem like mini-reading comprehension questions. Typical questions ask “Which of the following statements, if true, is most likely to undermine the argument?” Or, “What is the flaw in the above argument?” The best way to prepare for this section is to understand the question patterns as well as how logical arguments are formed and what follows logically from a series of statements.  (For example, If A then B; therefore, if not B, then not A, but the occurrence of B does not necessarily mean A has occurred.)  An LSAT preparation book or course should explain logical inferences and logical fallacies.  Logic courses or any academic course that requires intensive critical thinking and logical reasoning, such as philosophy, should help with this section.

3. Analytic Reasoning
This section is often called logic games. Many people find this section of the test the most difficult. This section of the test asks you to arrange a group of items based on certain (sometimes complex) conditions.  For example, “The person with the blue hat is sitting next to the person with the red hat. The person with the black hat is not sitting next to the person with an orange hat.  Where is the person with the green hat sitting?”  Familiarity with the patterns of the puzzles is the key here: the only way to really learn this is by doing practice tests. When you recognize a puzzle pattern, you can more easily understand, diagram, and solve it. One way to practice analytic thinking is to play classic electronic puzzle games like Mastermind or Minesweeper.  Everett Kaser Software makes electronic logic puzzle games (http://www.kaser.com).  Formal logic courses would also help prepare you. 

4. The Writing Sample
The writing sample does not count toward your LSAT exam score but is sent to law schools along with your LSAT score.  The writing sample question poses a situation where there are two more-or-less equal alternatives, and your task is to make an argument about why one alternative should be chosen over the other.  A good answer would discuss the pros and cons of both alternatives but then make a case why one alternative is better. (For example: While A provides such and such, B provides such and such as well but also has the added bonus of so and so; therefore B is the better option). There is no right answer to this question: the question simply tests your ability to make a clear, well-organized, well-supported, persuasive argument.  English, Communication, or other courses that involve persuasive argumentation and writing (such as term papers in history, political science, philosophy, etc.) would help you prepare.

Should I re-take the LSAT?.
According to one study, candidates who took the test a second time earn scored on average 2.7 points higher than their first scores. But remember this number is an average. Many test takers achieve higher scores but also many test takers actually earn lower scores. For example, among those repeat test takers who earned a 150 on their first LSAT in a recent test year, 628 earned a higher second score, 51 earned a second 150, and 211 earned lower scores.  Also realize that although some law schools will look only at the higher score, others will average the two scores or even look at the lower score.  In other words, taking the LSAT a second time is a gamble.
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Dhaka University KA Unit Admission Test Question and Answers

DU KA Unit Admission Test

Physics SET: 3

Dhaka University KA Unit Admission Test Question SolutionDhaka University KA Unit Admission Test Question SolutionDhaka University KA Unit Admission Test Question SolutionDhaka University KA Unit Admission Test Question Solution
Answer: 01.B 02.C 03.D 04.C 05.B 06.D 07.B 08.B 09.C 10.B 11.B 12.C 13.C 14.D 15.A 16.B 17.C 18.A 19.C 20.A 21.B 22.B 23.C 24.B 25.B 26.D 27.C 28.B 29.C 30.B

Chemistry  SET: 3

DU KA Unit Admission Test Question SolutionDU KA Unit Admission Test Question SolutionDU KA Unit Admission Test Question SolutionDU KA Unit Admission Test Question Solution
Answer: 01.D 02.A 03.C 04.B 05.A 06.D 07.C 08.A 09.B 10.A 11.B 12.B 13.A 14.A 15.C 16.C 17.B 18.C 19.B 20.B 21.A 22.C 23.D 24.C 25.B 26.B 27.C 28.D 29.A 30.D

Mathematics SET: 3

Dhaka University KA Unit Admission Test Question SolutionDhaka University KA Unit Admission Test Question SolutionDhaka University KA Unit Admission Test Question SolutionDhaka University KA Unit Admission Test Question Solution
Answer: 01.D 02.C 03.B 04.B 05.D 06.C 07.C 08.B 09.C 10.B 11.B 12.A 13.D 14.D 15.D 16.B 17.C 18.C 19.C 20.B 21.C 22.C 23.B 24.C 25.A 26.B 27.C 28.C 29.B 30.C

Dhaka University KA Unit Admission Test Question SolutionDhaka University KA Unit Admission Test Question SolutionDhaka University KA Unit Admission Test Question Solution

Answer: 1.C 2.C 3.D 4.A 5.A 6.B 7.C 8.A 9.A 10.B 11.A 12.B 13.c 14.D 15.C 16.C 17.C 18.B 19.B 20.A 21.B 22.C 23.A 24.A 25.D 26.C 27.B 28.A 29.A 30.A
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UCL Undergraduate Preparatory Certificate Maths Sample questions with answers

Why try the sample tests?

UPC applicants (or those students thinking of applying to the UPC course) are strongly encouraged to try the sample tests in the subjects they are likely to select to study on the UPC course. The sample test below is designed to give an idea of the style and level of the questions that will be asked on the actual UPC entrance tests. Entrance tests are usually taken by UPC applications in the their home country and should be undertaken in strict test conditions.

All the UPC entrance tests comprise of 30 multiple-choice questions and the sample tests are taken as a whole. Feedback on your answers is given on completion.

The score you receive for the sample test will be based only on your first attempt at answering the questions.

Answering at least 50% of the questions correctly is a good indication that you may be ready to take the UPC entrance tests and if you have not already done so, you should think about submitting an application for the course. You should also see the list of the other entrance requirements for UPC admission.

Good luck!

Guidance on taking the sample test:
  • There are 30 questions. The questions are multiple-choice and you should select the correct answer.
  • You can take the test in full as 30 consecutive questions or in sections of 5.
  • You should answer as many questions as possible. Do not worry if you are not able to answer all the questions.
  • You should not use a calculator.
  • 60 minutes is the maximum allowed when taking the actual UPC entrance tests after submitting an application for the course.
  • You must complete the real tests without help from any other person.
  • You can use a dictionary to help you understand the questions, but in the real tests you MUST NOT use any maths or science textbooks or websites to help you complete the test.
  • An applicant may take the entrance test without a UCL representative present. However, please note that successful UPC applicants enrolling as UPC students will be re-tested when they begin the UPC course. If the result of this re-test clearly shows that a student has not originally complied with the test instructions above and the student is at a level too low for successful attendance of the UPC course, the student may be asked to leave the course without any refund of course fees.
Click on the link below to start the test:
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Cadet College Admission Test Preparation 2015

Cadet College Admission Test Preparation 2015
Tag Questions
1. They are coming, ......?
2. They need not come, ......?
3. There is a problem, ......?
4. He liked me, ......?
5. Nobody came,......?
Articles :
6. Always speak ...... truth.
7. There is ...... ewe.
8. Mr. Borun is ...... European
Choose the best answer :
9. He is callous...... his studies.
a. for b. on c. into d. to
10. She concurs ...... me on my decision.
a. With b. to c. by d. against
11. What prevents scurvy?
a. Vitamin K b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin A d. Vitamin B
12. I need to colour the door. Where colour is ¡
a. Noun b. Adjective c. Verb d. None of above
13. What is adjective of the word 'Heart'?
a. Heart b. Hearten
c. Heartening
d. Heartful
14. A dog lives in a .....
a. Kennel b. Cage
c. hut d. round
15. It is quarter past time.
a. What time it is?
b. What time is it?
c. What is the time it is?
d. None
16. He is too weak ----
a. He is too weak to walk
b. He is too weak too walk c. He is weak enough to walk
d. None of the above.
17. He ¡ what I said.
a. noted b. took
c. wrote down
d. took down
18. The word didactic means
a. instructive b. dictatorial
c. monotonous
d. brilliant
Translate into English :
19. সে কলেজে যাবার আগেই আমি ঢাকা রওয়ানা হব।
20. বর্ষা আরম্ভ হয়েছে।
answer :
1. aren't they 2. need they 3. isn't there 4. didn't he 5. did they 6. the 7. at 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. b 12. c 13. d 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. d 18. a
19. I shall have started for Dhaka before he goes to college.
20. The rains have set in. ..........................................................................................

Cadet College Admission Test Preparation 2015
Model Test
English Transform the following sentences :
1. Man is mortal. (negative)
Answer : Man is not immortal.
2. I missed the train. (negative)
Answer : I could not catch the train.
3. Jerry was an honest boy. (negative)
Answer : Jerry was not a dishonest boy.
4. Only Allah can help us. (negative)
Answer : None but Allah can help us.
5. Only a rogue can do this. (negative)
Answer : None but a rouge can do this.
6. Jerry was the only boy fit for chopping wood. (negative)
Answer : No other boy that (or but) Jerry was fit for chopping wood.
7. Money alone can save him now. (negative)
Answer : Nothing but money can save him now.
8. I must go there. (negative)
Answer : I cannot but go there.
9. You must tell the truth. (negative)
Answer : You cannot help telling the truth.
10. Every rose has a thorn. (negative)
Answer : There is no rose but has a thorn.
11. Every one will admit this. (negative)
Answer : There is no one but will admit this.
12. Everyone will admit this. (negative)
Answer : No one will deny this.
13. The earth goes round the sun. (interrogative)
Answer : Does not (doesn’t) the earth go round the sun?
14. Time passes very fast. (interrogative)
Answer : Doesn’t time pass very fast?
15. Everybody loves his motherland. (interrogative)
Answer : Who does not love his motherland?
16. Every one wishes to be happy. (interrogative)
Answer : Who does not wish to be happy?
17. Everyone will help me. (interrogative)
Answer : Who will not help me?
18. He is not a great fool. (interrogative)
Answer : Is he a great fool?
19. They could not drink the salty sea water. (interrogative)
Answer : Could they drink the salty sea water?
20. There is no use of this ceremony. (interrogative)
Answer : What’s the use of this ceremony?
21. You are a great fool. (exclamatory)
Answer : What a fool you are!
22. What an idea! (assertive)
Answer : It is a marvelous idea.
23. The rose is very beautiful. (exclamatory)
Answer : How beautiful the rose is!
24. You are very fortunate. (exclamatory)
Answer : How fortunate you are!
25. Dhaka is the biggest city in Bangladesh. (negative)
Answer : No other city in Bangladesh is as big as Dhaka.
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Sample Questions of Masters in Development Management and Practice (MDMP)

Masters in Development Management and Practice

(MDMP)

Relevant Information, Instructions and Sample Questions

This test for 110 minutes consists of four (4) sections and carries 100 marks as follows: (All sections must be answered).


Sections
Questions
Marks
Suggested Time
1.
Mathematics
20
40
30 Minutes
2.
Logical Reasoning & General knowledge
10
20
20 Minutes
3.
English-Language & Reasoning
30
30
45 Minutes
4.
Writing Ability
1
10
15 Minutes
Total

100
110 Minutes

       You will receive an instruction sheet (1) a question set and (2) an answer book. You can use the blank space of the question set for calculation of mathematical problems.
       Each section has its own answer sheet in the answer book. Answer the multiple choice questions on the answer book by putting a cross (X) in the appropriate box. Do not put more than one cross (X) for an answer as it will be considered a wrong answer. Do not answer any multiple choice question on the question set.

       You may use the blank spaces of the question set for rough work. Do not use any other paper for rough work.
        You may use pencil for rough work but final answers must be in ink (ballpoint or fountain pen).

        You may use non-programmable calculator.

        You are requested to obey the instructions given below:

a)      Keep absolute silence during the whole course of examination.
b)      Do not communicate with other candidates in any manner.
c)      Do not copy from any source.

       Failure to follow the above instructions may lead to cancellation of your answer script.


Sample Question

Section 1: Mathematics

Marks- 40 (20 Questions)                           Suggested Time- 30 Minutes

       A student obtained an average mark of 70 from 5 class test. How much must she get in the next test if

she wants to improve her average by 5 marks?


a)  100
b) 75
c) 30
d)25
e) 80






Section 2: Logical Reasoning & General Knowledge

Marks- 20 (10 Questions)                           Suggested Time- 20 Minutes
Mumu earns more commission than does Muna. But since Noriya earns more commission than does Tahiya, it follows that Mumu earns more commission than does Tahiya. Any of the following, if introduced into the argument as an additional premise, makes the argument logically correct except;

a)  Noriya earns more commission than Mamu.
b)  Muna earns more commission than Tahiya.
c)  Muna earns more commission than Noriya.
d)  Muna and Noriya earn the same amount of commission.
e)  Mumu and Noriya earn the same amount of commission.

Section 3: English-Language & Communications

Marks- 30 (30 Questions)                           Suggested Time- 45 Minutes
       The voters never thought that the candidate would resort to ……….. to win; he seemed to be

…………  man.
a)      charm, an amazingly
b)      bombast, a pompous
c)      innuendo, a devious
d)      subterfuge, an honest
e)      argument, a controversial


Section 4: Analytical Writing (Any 0ne)


Marks- 10 (01 Question)                          Suggested Time- 15 Minutes
       “The best way to preserve the natural environment is to impose penalties-whether fines, imprisonment, or other punishments-on those who are most responsible for polluting or otherwise damaging it.”

Discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the opinion expressed above. Support your point of view with reasons and/or examples from your experience, observations, or reading.
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